Can we prove something like this, even economically, that such a bias exists? And yeah, also as a follow-up through Pablo, is this a breakthrough or not? What do you think?

Thank you, Lena.

Thanks again for having me on this podcast.

As you mentioned, I was involved in part on the European Commission investigation of this case a few years ago, but haven't been involved in the litigation.

And I also speak in personal capacity.

On your first question, yes, I agree with Pablo.

It's not a breakthrough.

So do you share the view? Maybe from an economic perspective? Otherwise, is it too formalistic, legalistic? What do you think?