Development of doctrine

Moving on to the next question around development.

So Vatican II is obvious, like the most insane example of doctrinal development from the Catholics.

But are we applying, let's say, a non-Catholic standard to their position on development that would give – you know, sort of leeway for such developmental positions, you know, in a certain sense, like we would say, you know, we are in sola scriptura and orthodoxy, right? So we're not going to apply that to the way we understand scripture.

And so would we be applying a similar standard to Catholicism in the way they understand their encyclicals?

I don't understand this argument.

Help me understand what you're arguing.

So are you saying could a Roman Catholic just say that, well, our system has doctrinal development, so there's no problem with what you think is a contradiction? Is that what

you're saying? Yeah, absolutely.